Nov 26

Test4actual IBM 000-171 exam

Exam Number/Code : 000-171
Exam Name : IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Developm

 

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Update Time : 2010-11-16

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LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. When the developer uses the Activity Wizard, what are control labels based on?

A. Variable names

B. Variable type names

C. Default text

D. Documentation tab

Answer: A

 

2. What is the proper way to add a parameter to a Java Integration Component?

A. Add a parameter to the Human Service.

B. Add a parameter to the General System Service.

C. Add a parameter to the Integration Component.

D. None of the above

Answer: D

3. At the BPD level, a private variable and input variable can have the same name.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

 

4. Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable [1]refundAmount [1]will be mapped as:

A. private

B. input

C. output

D. output and private

E. input and private

Answer: B

 

5. Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable [1]approved[1] will be mapped as:

A. private

B. input

C. output

D. output and private

E. input and private

Answer: C

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Nov 26

Test4actual IBM 000-051 exam

“Rational Developer for System z v7.6″, also known as 000-051 exam, is a IBM certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 60 Q&As to your 000-051 Exam preparation. In the 000-051 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in IBM certifications helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.

The Questions & Answers are the same as your real test. We ensure you pass it with high scores.Otherwise, we will give you full refund.

 

1. The Menu Manager feature lets a user create menus and actions related to subprojects and files. Actions can be created with a set of predefined substitution variables for interactive commands.

Which variable can be used to represent the host name or IP address of the system associated with a selected resource?

A.$systemhostname

B.$gethostname

C.$name

D.$fullname

ANSWER: A

 

2. To debug a program inside a local project on the z/OS Projects view, the program must be built with the “/DEBUG” link option and which other option?

A.the “ADATA” compiler option

B.the “LIST” compiler option

C.the “/TEST” compiler option

D.the “/OUT” link option

ANSWER: C

 

3. Rational Developer for System z has a set of published application programming interfaces (APIs) to make integration with third-party tools or systems possible.

Which API allows developers to perform operations such as copy, rename, and delete on host system files?

A.CARMA API

B.Remote Resource Access API

C.LPEX API

D.Service Flow Programming Interface

ANSWER: B

 

4. When creating a “DB2 for z/OS” database connection via the Data perspective, which type of driver does the database manager use to enable interaction with the host database?

A.ODBC driver

B.JDBC driver

C.C++ driver

D.MySQL driver

ANSWER: B

 

5. You can create a property group file at the system level so that it is available to all the users of that system when they connect to it. To do so, you must first create a properties configuration file (propertiescfg.properties).

What is the function of this file?

A.to define the default property values for users of Rational Developer for System z

B.to define the default property values, and which users can access them

C.to define the locations of the system property group and the locations of the default value files

D.to define the property values for the various host-based projects and subprojects

ANSWER: C

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Nov 25

Test4actual IBM 000-037 exam

Exam Number/Code : 000-033
Exam Name : IBM Tivoli App Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 Implementat

 

One year free update

Once failed,100% refund

Update Time : 2010-11-9

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LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. A company is mandated to retain all archived data for seven years. Which two parameters must be added to the DEFINE COPYGROUP command to support this policy? (Choose two.)

A. RETMIN=7

B. RETVER=2555

C. MODE=ARCHIVE

D.

E. RETINIT=CREATION

Answer: BD

 

2. A company is creating an archive retention server and has a requirement that archives cannot be deleted before the retention period has passed. Which command prevents an archived object from being deleted?

A. SET ARCHIVELOCK ON

B. SET RETENTIONLOCK ON

C. SET ARCHIVERETENTIONLOCK ON

D. SET ARCHIVERETENTIONPROTECTION ON

Answer: D

 

3. Which parameter is used with the DEFINE COPYGROUP command to specify the number of days to retain a backup version after that version becomes inactive due to a new active version?

A. RETMIN

B. RETVER

C. RETONLY

D. RETEXTRA

Answer: D

 

4. A company’s Service Level Agreement states that during a data restore, the Accounts Payable department systems receive priority. Which feature expedites restoring this data?

A. Client Polling

B. Collocation by Group

C. Automatic Reconciliation

D. Dynamic Data Consolidation

Answer: B

 

5. A company must limit the size and number of files stored in the storage pool. Which two features reduce the amount of data backed up? (Choose two.)

A. Include-Exclude List

B. Journal-Based Backup

C. Client Side Backup Sets

D. Client Side Data Deduplication

E. Server Side Data Deduplication

Answer: AD

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Nov 25

Test4actual IBM 000-003 exam

“IBM Tivoli App Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 Implementat”, also known as 000-033 exam, is a IBM certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 201 Q&As to your 000-033 Exam preparation. In the 000-033 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in IBM certifications helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.

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LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. Which user account is required in the LDAP registry for configuring access to IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2, its objects, and its services?

A.root

B.cmdbuser

C.taddmuser

D.administrator

ANSWER: D

 

2. A customer has provided lists of business applications and the names of the servers on which they run. After comparing them to the scope of work, there are several differences between the lists. Which two options resolve the differences? (Choose two.)

A.Work with the customer to reduce the number of servers associated to a business application.

B.Work with the customer to add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of work.

C.Add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of work and submit the new scope of work for approval.

D.Add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of work and submit a change request with the customer.

E.Use the scope of work listing as the baseline to begin work and submit a change request for the additional servers associated to a business application.

ANSWER: AB

 

3. Which command can be executed on an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager server to verify that WMI has been correctly configured on a Windows gateway server?

A.execgw.jy/execgw.bat

B.execwmi.jy/execwmi.bat

C.testwmi.jy/testwmi.bat

D.wmitest.py/wmitest.bat

ANSWER: C

 

4. If a customer wants to discover a Microsoft Exchange Server running on a Windows server using default Level 3 Discovery, which access credentials in the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 (TADDM) access list will allow discovery of the Microsoft Exchange Server?

A.User name and password of an administrator for the Microsoft Exchange Server should be specified as Access Credentials for a Component Type ‘Mail Servers’ in the Access List.

B.Component Type ‘Messaging Servers’ with Vendor ‘Microsoft Exchange Server’ when the TADDM service account for Windows does not have full permissions to the appropriate WMI namespaces.

C.User name and password of a user with read access to the Microsoft Exchange Server should be specified as Access Credentials for a Component Type ‘Mail Servers’ in the TADDM Access List.

D.An entry for Component Type ‘Mail Servers’ must be added to the Access List with Vendor ‘Microsoft Exchange Server’ selected, also specifying the WMI namespaces for Microsoft Exchange Servers.

ANSWER: B

 

5. What are three ways to control access to configuration items in IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2? (Choose three.)

A.roles

B.sensors

C.permissions

D.person groups

E.security groups

F.access collections

ANSWER: ACF

Nov 21

Test4actual CompTIA SK0-003 exam

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Exam Number/Code : sk0-003

Exam Name : CompTIA -Server+ (2010)

Update Time : 2010-11-8

 

One year free update

Once failed,100% refund

 

Test4actual offers free demo for Server+ sk0-003 exam (CompTIA -Server+ (2010)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. The Questions & Answers are the same as your real test. We ensure you pass it with high scores.

 

LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server?

A.Blade servers allow for internal tape drives

B.Blade servers offer more rack density

C.Blade servers are typically faster

D.Blade servers allow for more RAM

ANSWER: B

 

2. A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB and the other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set?

A.150GB

B.300GB

C.400GB

D.500GB

ANSWER: B

 

3. A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At which point in time should the next baseline be run?

A.After the memory is installed

B.Before the upgrade is performed

C.After the NIC is installed

D.After the upgrades are performed

ANSWER: D

 

4. Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?

A.Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.

B.Reboot the server.

C.Install a new NIC on the server.

D.Verify that network cables are connected.

ANSWER: D

 

5. A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?

A.Greatest, Final, Sequential

B.Full, Partial, Incremental

C.Monthly, Weekly, Daily

D.Full, Differential, Incremental

ANSWER: C

Nov 21

Test4actual JN0-130 exam

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“Juniper networks certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e)”, also known as jn0-130 exam, is a Juniper Networks certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 254 Q&As to your jn0-130 Exam preparation. In the jn0-130 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Juniper Networks certifications helping to ready you for your successful Juniper Networks Certification.

 

The Questions & Answers are the same as your real test. We ensure you pass it with high scores.Goodluck to you!

LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

 

1. Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?

A.enable password 0 mypassword

B.enable password 3 mypassword

C.enable password 5 mypassword

D.enable password 10 mypassword

 

ANSWER: A

 

2. You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs each interface is using.

Which CLI command displays this information?

A.show fast interface

B.show vlan interface

C.show vlan subinterface

D.show fast interface vlan

 

ANSWER: C

 

3. Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?

A.to aggregate routes learned from the ABR

B.to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR

C.to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone

D.to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area

interface vlan

 

ANSWER: D

 

4. Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and 192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?

A.network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0

B.network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0

C.area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

D.area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

 

ANSWER: B

 

5. Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and why?

A.It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.

B.It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.

C.It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it is elected as the DIS.

D.It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.

 

ANSWER: C

Nov 17

Test4actual Microsoft 70-691 exam

Exam Number/Code : 70-691
Exam Name : Windows HPC Server 2008, Developing

Update Time : 2010-11-5

 

One year free update

Once failed,100% refund

 

Free 70-691 Demo Download

Test4actual offers free demo for MCSE 70-691 exam (Windows HPC Server 2008, Developing). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. You plan to develop a parallel application by using Windows HPC Server 2008.

You plan to use a method to control the calculations performed by each individual process.

You need to ensure that different commands can be sent to each process.

Which function should you use?

A. MPI_Send

B. MPI_Bcast

C. MPI_Gather

D. MPI_Reduce

Answer: A

 

2. You plan to develop a parallel application by using Windows HPC Server 2008.

You need to implement a method that will send different data to each process in a communicator by using a single call.

Which function should you use?

A. MPI_Send

B. MPI_Gather

C. MPI_Reduce

D. MPI_Scatter

Answer: D

 

3. You plan to develop a parallel application by using Windows HPC Server 2008.

The application performs the following tasks:

·Performs multistep calculations

·Processes data by using the same code segment that runs on each compute node

You need to ensure that each compute process executes the same step simultaneously.

Which type of communication should you use?

A. Buffered

B. Collective

C. Non-blocking

D. Point-to-point

Answer: B

 

4. You plan to develop a parallel application by using Windows HPC Server 2008.

You need to ensure that when the application starts, a parameter value is communicated to each process in the cluster by using a single call.

Which function should you use?

A. MPI_Send

B. MPI_Bcast

C. MPI_Gather

D. MPI_Reduce

Answer: B

 

5. You plan to develop a single program multiple data (SPMD) application by using Windows HPC Server 2008.

You use multiple processes to perform intermediate calculations and to provide the results as a single number.

You need to ensure that the intermediate results are collected and added together by using a single MPI function.

Which function should you use?

A. MPI_Send

B. MPI_Bcast

C. MPI_Gather

D. MPI_Reduce

Answer: D

Nov 17

Test4actual Microsoft 70-528 exam

“MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development”, also known as 70-528 exam, is a Microsoft certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers.

Test4actual has assembled to take you through 332 Q&As to your 70-528 Exam preparation. In the 70-528 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Microsoft certifications helping to ready you for your successful Microsoft Certification.

 

LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

1. Your Web site uses custom Themes. Your Web site must support additional Themes based on the user’s company name.

The company name is set when a user logs on to the Web site. The company’s Theme name is stored in a variable named ThemeName.

You need to use this variable to dynamically set the Web site’s Theme.

What should you do?

A. Add the following code segment to the markup source of each page on the Web site.

<%@ Page Theme=”ThemeName” … %>

B. Add the following code segment to the Load event of each page on the Web site.

Page.Theme = ThemeName;

C. Add the following code segment to the PreInit event of each page on the Web site.

Page.Theme = ThemeName;

D. Add the following code segment to the Web site’s configuration file.

<pages theme=”ThemeName” />

Answer: C

 

2. You write a Web application. This application must support multiple languages. You store the localized strings in the application as resources. You want these resources to be accessed according to a user’s language preference. You create the following resource files in the App_GlobalResources folder of your application.

myStrings.resx

myStrings.en-CA.resx

myString.en-US.resx

myStrings.fr-CA.resx

myStrings.es-MX.resx

Each resource file stores a localized version of the following strings: Name, E-mail, Address, and Phone. You create a Web Form that contains one label for each of these strings.

You need to ensure that the correct localized version of each string is displayed in each label, according to a user’s language preference.

What should you do?

A. Add the following configuration section to the Web.config file.

  <globalization culture=”Auto” />

B. Set the directive for each page in your site as follows:

  <%@ Page UICulture=”Auto” … %>

C. Add the following code segment to the page’s load event.

  lblName.Text = @”{myStrings}Name”;

  lblAddress.Text = @”{myStrings}Address”;

  lblEmail.Text = @”{myStrings}Email”;

  lblPhone.Text = @”{myStrings}Phone”;

D. Add the following code segment to the page’s load event.

  lblName.Text = Resources.myStrings.Name;

  lblAddress.Text = Resources.myStrings.Address;

  lblEmail.Text = Resources.myStrings.Email;

  lblPhone.Text = Resources.myStrings.Phone;

Answer: D

 

3. You create a Web Form. The Web Form displays sales information as a chart. The chart must be rendered to the user’s browser as a .jpeg file. The chart is retrieved by using the following code segment.

Bitmap chart = Chart.GetCurrentSales();

You need to display the chart to the user.

Which code segment should you use?

A. Response.ContentType = “image/jpeg”;

chart.Save(Request.InputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg);

chart.Dispose();

B. Response.ContentType = “image/bitmap”;

chart.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp);

chart.Dispose();

C. Response.ContentType = “text/html”;

chart.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.MemoryBmp);

chart.Dispose();

D. Response.ContentType = “image/jpeg”;

chart.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg);

chart.Dispose();

Answer: D

 

4. You create a Web Form. The Web Form allows users to calculate values and display the results in a label named lblResults.

You need to capture all unhandled exceptions on the Web Form through the Error event. The Error event must capture each unhandled exception and display it on the Web Form.

Which code segment should you use?

A. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {

  lblResults.Text = e.ToString();

  e=null;

}

B. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {

  lblResults.Text = Server.GetLastError().ToString();

  Server.ClearError();

}

C. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {

  Response.Write(e.ToString());

  e=null;

}

D. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {

  Response.Write(Server.GetLastError().ToString());

  Server.ClearError();

}

Answer: D

 

5. You create a Web Form. The Web Form uses the FormView control to enable a user to edit a record in the database.

When the user clicks the Update button on the FormView control, the application must validate that the user has entered data in all of the fields.

You need to ensure that the Web Form does not update if the user has not entered data in all of the fields.

Which code segment should you use?

A. protected void FormView1_ItemUpdating(object sender, FormViewUpdateEventArgs e) {

  foreach (DictionaryEntry entry in e.Keys) {

    if (entry.Value.ToString() == System.String.Empty) {

      e.Cancel = true;

      return;

    }

  }

}

B. protected void FormView1_ItemUpdated(object sender, FormViewUpdatedEventArgs e) {

  foreach (DictionaryEntry entry in e.NewValues) {

    if (entry.Value.Equals(”")) {

      e.KeepInEditMode = true;

      return;

    }

  }

}

C. protected void FormView1_ItemUpdating(object sender, FormViewUpdateEventArgs e) {

  foreach (DictionaryEntry entry in e.NewValues) {

    if (entry.Value.Equals(”")) {

      e.Cancel = true;

      return;

    }

  }

}

D. protected void FormView1_ItemUpdated(object sender, FormViewUpdatedEventArgs e) {

  foreach (DictionaryEntry entry in e.Keys) {

    if (entry.Value.ToString() == System.String.Empty) {

      e.KeepInEditMode = true;

      return;

    }

  }

}

Answer: C

Nov 15

Test4actual IBM 000-978 exam

“Power Systems with POWER7 & IBM i Sales Skills – V1″, also known as 000-978 exam, is a IBM certification. Do you Know? Many people want to have this certification! Because its authority!
Teset4actual always kept up to date on the braindumps, such as 000-978, which is an exam in prometric center, we have updated in the 2010-11-3! Welcome new and old customers to consult!

 

LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

 

1. How does the IBM i work management capability optimize system use for a customer?

A.It uncaps workload allowing the largest workloads to obtain full processor and system resources.

B.It maximizes system resources by moving the most important workloads to the largest partitions within a system.

C.It isolates each workload, dedicates system resources, and prioritizes workloads to maximize the use of system resources.

D.It tracks end user jobs in output queues and prioritizes based on end user name ensuring that the highest priority user tasks process the fastest.

 

ANSWER: C

 

2. A customer with a 16-core POWER5 570 would like to save money by decreasing their overall TCO. Which of the following systems should be installed in order to maintain good performance and save on software maintenance?

A.Power 770

B.Power 750

C.Power 740

D.Power 730

 

ANSWER: B

 

3. A customer would like to implement a new server with IBM i to function as an application and web server only. Which of the following server options will meet their requirements, at lowest total cost of acquisition?

A.720 with IBM i Web Edition

B.720 with IBM i Express Edition

C.720 with IBM i Standard Edition

D.720 with IBM i Enterprise Edition

 

ANSWER: B

 

4. A sales representative is reviewing the benefits of IBM i to a prospective POWER7 customer. Which of the following statements regarding IBM i should be included when the entire product line is considered?

A.Over 50 IBM software and middleware products are supported on IBM i.

B.A relational database, security and built-in high availability software is standard with each IBM i license.

C.Application programs developed on older generations of IBM i servers can be migrated to POWER7 using emulation mode.

D.IBM i on POWER7 supports multiple workloads in multiple partitions with a single license of the operating system providing a lower cost of acquisition.

 

ANSWER: A

 

5. A prospective customer has a requirement to support a WebSphere Portal application. Which of the following IBM i offerings is the minimum required to support the customer requirement?

A.Express Edition without DB2

B.Standard Edition for Portal Solutions

C.Solution Edition for Business Processing

D.Enterprise Edition with embedded WebSphere

 

ANSWER: A

Nov 15

Test4actual HP HP0-M39 exam

Questions and Answers : 66Q&A

Update Time : 2010-9-28

 One year free update

Once failed,100% refund

Free HP0-M39 Demo Download

 

Test4actual offers free demo for Specialist Specialist HP0-M39 exam (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

HP0-M39 PDF Demo

 

Look the demo first:

1. How can you add recordable or non-recordable operations to your test? (Select three.)

A. Use the Step Generator.

B. Insert through Keyword View.

C. Drag objects from the object repository.

D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.

E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.

F. Drag objects from the Data Table.

Answer: ABE

 

2. What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of?

A. calls to actions

B. calls to actions (reusable only)

C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests

D. calls and copies of actions

Answer: A

 

3. Which names are used to identify the status of your application before and after your automated test executes? (Select two.)

A. initial condition

B. static state

C. end condition

D. down condition

E. done condition

Answer: AC

 

4. During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to achieve testing goals. Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?

A. input data

B. parameters

C. initial and end conditions

D. visual cues

Answer: C

 

5. What are the default add-ins installed with QuickTest Professional? (Select three.)

A. .NET

B. ActiveX

C. HTML

D. Web

E. Java

F. OCX

G. Visual Basic

Answer: BDG

 

6. Which Quick Test Professional View Option will show you the repositories associated with each action?

A. Resources

B. Information

C. Script Repository

D. Active Screen

Answer: A

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Nov 14

Test4actual HP HP0-M31 exam

Lots people failed the HP0-M31, because the HP0-M31 was changed, now the test4actual had update the newest HP0-M31 exam, so many people buy the HP0-M31 braindumps from test4actual, becasue our HP0-M31 are the real exam questions and have 100% correct answers! if you want to take HP0-M31, we are sure you will pass the exam with good score!

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?

A. Management

B. Libraries

C. Cycles

D. Releases

Answer: D

 

2. Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)

A. WinRunner scripts

B. VuGen scripts

C. LoadRunner scenarios

D. QAInspect

E. SiteScope

F. Diagnostic monitors

G. QuickTest Professional scripts

Answer: ACDG

 

3. What is an advantage of using cross project customization?

A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you to standardize policies and procedures across projects.

B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can perform enables you to control access to the project.

C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can perform enables you to control access to the project.

D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.

Answer: A

 

4. Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?

A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization

B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization

C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization

D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization

Answer: A

 

5. Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?

A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments

B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments

C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images

D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps

Answer: C

 

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Nov 14

Test4actual 000-136 exam

Questions and Answers : 91Q&A

Update Time : 2010-9-28

Price : $109.00

 

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Look the DEMO first :

 

1. Which view best displays the list of all callers and callees of a selected method?

A. Call Hierarchy

B. Hierarchy

C. Outline

D. Package Explorer

Answer: A

 

2. When creating a session bean, the default selection for the session bean is to create a remote client view instead of a local client view.  This is because:

A. Even though a local client view is available, it is a best practice to never use a local client view in a session bean.

B. Session beans are normally used to implement facades, and as such, require remote interfaces as opposed to local interfaces.

C. A remote client view is easier to use.

D. Local client view for session beans has been deprecated.

Answer: B

 

3. A developer has closed a view in the Java perspective in the workbench.

What can the developer select to recover the original Java perspective layout?

A. Window > Delete Perspective

B. Workbench > Use Defaults

C. Window > Reset Perspective

D. File > Recover Defaults

Answer: C

 

4. What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?

A. a single workspace per workbench

B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces

C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views

D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses

Answer: B

 

5. A developer has made multiple changes to a Java file. How can the developer switch back to an earlier version of the file?

A. context pop-up menu > Compare with > Local history

B. context pop-up menu > Edit > Reset

C. context pop-up menu > Replace With > Local history

D. File > Replace with Previous

Answer: C

 

6. A developer has deleted a file from a Java package in a workspace and would like to recover it.

What must the developer do after selecting the Java package?

A. use the context pop-up menu option “Restore from Local History”

B. use the context pop-up menu option “Recover from File System”

C. click File > Deleted files and select the file

D. click File > Undo

Answer: A

 

7. What are three methods of importing a file from the file system to a Java package in the workbench? (Choose three.)

A. drag and drop the file from the file system to the package in the workbench

B. use the Import wizard from the File menu in the workbench

C. use the context pop-up menu on the package in the workbench and select Import

D. select Search > File in the workbench and then use the Import tab

E. use the context pop-up menu on the file in the file system and select Import to Workbench

Answer: ABC

 

8. How many perspectives can a developer interact with at a time in each workbench window?

A. as many as needed if the perspectives are organized as Views

B. as many as needed by selecting File > Switch Perspective

C. only one

D. one per View

Answer: C

 

9. Which application development framework is used to develop highly available, reliable, scalable, and secure Web and client-server applications in Java?

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

B. Standard Widget Toolkit (SWT)

C. Java Enterprise Edition (JavaEE)

D. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)

Answer: C

 

10. Which statement is true about the Software Analysis feature?

A. It provides a runtime environment to test web resources.

B. It is used to debug a wide range of applications.

C. It assists in gathering data and metrics on applications that are running.

D. It can perform automated code reviews without executing applications.

Answer: D

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Nov 12

Test4actual 000-135 exam

Questions and Answers : 60Q&A

Update Time : 2010-9-28

Price : $99.00

 

Free 000-135 Demo Download

Test4actual offers free demo for IBM certifications I 000-135 exam (Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?

A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm

B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution

C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm

D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host

Answer: B

 

2. How might a developer use a shared global variable?

A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users

B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session

C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user

D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application

Answer: C

 

3. On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS Toolkit, supported to be deployed and run?

A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client

B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime

C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime

D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market

Answer: B

 

4. To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display terminal window can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?

A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the server.

B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application button Standard.?

C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal window.

D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting the Enable Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.

Answer: B

 

5. In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be managed, deployed, and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?

A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component

B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to applications

C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web server

D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to applications

Answer: D

 

6. Which situation requires that the WAR class loader policy setting be configured when HATS Web applications are deployed into a production environment or when the applications are tested in a local environment?

A. The application includes a WebFacing connecting (5250W).

B. The application includes business logic.

C. The application includes global variables.

D. The application includes macros.

Answer: B

 

7. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?

A. Windows, AIX, IBM i, z/OS, or Linux on z

B. IBM i or z/OS only

C. Linux on System i or System z only

D. Windows or Linux only

Answer: A

 

8. What is the recommended first step in migrating a HATS application from a previous version to V7 or 7.1?

A. open the current workspace with the newer version of the HATS studio

B. import the HATS project from the current version using the Project Interchange file

C. extract the HATS project into an EAR file

D. download and install the HATS migration tool

Answer: B

 

9. What does HATS automatically do when a HATS project is migrated to a new version?

A. makes a backup of the previous version files

B. instructs that a backup be made of the workspace

C. asks for a location to save the new project

D. modifies the server runtime version

Answer: A

 

10. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?

A. screen customizations (.evnt files)

B. host connection properties in the .hco files

C. Javascript files (.js files)

D. screen capture files (.hsc files)

Answer: C

Nov 12

Test4actual st0-91x exam

Exam Number/Code : st0-91x
Exam Name : symentec netbackup 7.0 for UNIX(STS)

 

 One year free update

Once failed,100% refund

Questions and Answers : 112Q&A

Update Time : 2010-10-16

Price : $139.00

 

Free st0-91x Demo Download

Test4actual offers free demo for STS Partner Accreditation st0-91x exam (symentec netbackup 7.0 for UNIX(STS)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional media server.

What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server information? 

A. run the update_all_clients script 

B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script 

C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface 

D. specify the new media server in the client properties 

Answer: B

 

2. A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters.

What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred? 

A. Media ID generation 

B. Media ID display 

C. media type mapping 

D. barcode rules 

Answer: A

 

3. Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially full media? (Select two.) 

A. Frozen  

B. Imported  

C. Active  

D. Available 

E. Inactive  

Answer: AB

 

4. Five media servers are configured in a storage unit group and media server load balancing is configured. There are 20 backups currently running from ten clients across the LAN. A new backup is started.

What is the first criteria Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses to determine which media server to use for the backup? 

A. server rank, based on the Device Management Service 

B. the media server that has the most blank tapes assigned 

C. server rank, based on the media server performance 

D. the media server that has the most free disk space  

Answer: C

 

5. Some UNIX clients are being backed up using the policy type Standard using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The amount of data being backed up per client in each backup session is much larger than the data available on each client.

Which change should the administrator make to avoid the local server data from being backed up repetitively? 

A. disable the attribute “Cross mount points” 

B. disable the attribute “Follow NFS” 

C. add the following entry to the file list “UNSET_ALL” 

D. disable the attribute “Collect true image restore information with move detection” 

Answer: A

 

6. A UNIX client has the following mount points defined:

/var

/usr

/opt

/home

A backup policy for this client has “Allow multiple data streams” enabled and contains a backup selections list with the ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES directive. It also contains an EXCLUDE list that excludes /home.

What happens when this backup policy runs? 

A. The backup completes successfully.  

B. Backup jobs are created for all mount points except for /home. 

C. The backup job for /home is partially successful because /home is excluded. 

D. The backup job for /home fails because /home is excluded. 

Answer: D

 

7. In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.) 

A. Optimized duplication 

B. Duplicate copy to tape 

C. Restore to an OpenStorage device 

D. Replicated copy 

E. Restore to a client 

Answer: BE

 

8. Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup LiveUpdate? 

A. 6.0 GA 

B. 6.0 MP4 

C. 6.5 GA 

D. 7.0 GA 

Answer: C

 

9. An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.

What does this indicate? 

A. The drive is down. 

B. The drive is up and under operator control. 

C. The drive is up and it is empty. 

D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy. 

Answer: C

 

10. Which report shows how many  volumes are at each retention level? 

A. Tape Summary  

B. Tape Logs  

C. Tape Contents  

D. Tape List  

Answer: A

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Nov 10

Test4actual IBM 000-M77

Exam: IBM 000-M77

Title : IBM Information Mgmt Optim Technical Mastery Test v2

 

If you want to pass any IT exam,test4actual will help you,and now the test4actual had update the newest 000-M77 exam.So many people choose test4actual because it has the real exam questions and 100% correct answers!Welcome new and old customers to consult and goodluck to you!

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. Which feature should one use to select specific rows from a Start Table to begin an Extract?

A.Selection criteria

B.SQL WHERE

C.Point and Shoot

D.Row List Definitions

 

ANSWER: C

 

2. What identifies the tables, relationship traversals, and selection criteria for the data to be archived?

A.Access Definition

B.Archive File

C.Browse Utility

D.Storage Profile

 

ANSWER: A

 

3. Which file records whether the Delete Process was successful for each row?

A.Index File

B.Control File

C.Archive File

D.Extract File

 

ANSWER: B

 

4. What is NOT a function of the Browse Utility?

A.to view related data by joining tables

B.to inspect archived data before making deletions

C.to define the tables and selection criteria for an Access Definition

D.to determine if an Archive File is appropriate for the Restore Process

 

ANSWER: C

 

5. Which statement is TRUE about the Restore Process?

A.The Insert Process is one method used to restore data.

B.Data cannot be restored to the original database if the data model has changed.

C.Data can only be restored from one Archive File per process.

D.Data must be loaded into a staging database before being restored to the original database.

 

ANSWER: A

 

6. Which of the following file formats is not supported by the Browse Utility?

A.Compare File (.cmp)

B.Extract File (.xf)

C.Archive File Collection (.afc)

D.Control File (.cf)

 

ANSWER: C

 

7. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A.Data is inaccessible to users during LOAD processing.

B.Data is available to other users during INSERT processing.

C.The speed of LOAD utility processing is faster than that of INSERT utility processing for large volume data.

D.Both LOAD and INSERT utilities provide Update/Insert processing in one step.

 

ANSWER: D

 

8. In some cases, administrators may wish to trigger custom SQL statements to be executed on a database at selected phases of an Archive, Delete, or Restore process. What should administrators define to enable these triggers?

A.Archive Action

B.Archive Trigger

C.Archive Index

D.Define SQL WHERE clause in Table Specifications

 

ANSWER: A

 

9. Which two requests are required to create a test database?

A.Archive and Compare

B.Compare and Extract

C.Extract and Insert

D.Insert and Load

 

ANSWER: C

 

10. Which of the following is the best sampling method to allow one to extract all customers records with names that begin with letters M,N,O,P,Q from states of California and Arizona as Test Data?

A.Child Limit option

B.Point-and-shoot option

C.Group option

D.Selection Criteria option

 

ANSWER: D

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